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Question 1 of 120
1. Question
Regarding money laundering, which of the following statements is true?
Correct
Money laundering is the process through which criminals mask illicit assets as legitimate assets that they have a right to possess and spend. Here, assets refer to that which is physical, intangible, or represented in the form of rights or obligations, such as a pension or trust fund.
Incorrect
Money laundering is the process through which criminals mask illicit assets as legitimate assets that they have a right to possess and spend. Here, assets refer to that which is physical, intangible, or represented in the form of rights or obligations, such as a pension or trust fund.
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Question 2 of 120
2. Question
Money laundering involves three processes. Which of the following is the correct order of these processes?
Correct
The stages of money laundering are: PLACEMENT, where the laundered introduces his illicit money into the financial system; LAYERING, where the launderer moves the illegal money around by using layers of financial transactions aimed at confusing the audit trail; INTEGRATION, here the laundered money is integrated into the economy in such a way that it appears as an asset of a legitimate business.
Incorrect
The stages of money laundering are: PLACEMENT, where the laundered introduces his illicit money into the financial system; LAYERING, where the launderer moves the illegal money around by using layers of financial transactions aimed at confusing the audit trail; INTEGRATION, here the laundered money is integrated into the economy in such a way that it appears as an asset of a legitimate business.
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Question 3 of 120
3. Question
A superstore, which encourages its customers to pay in cash, always rewards them with a special discount. This discount, however, is not reflected on the sales invoice ‘for competitive reasons’. At the end of the year, total revenue recorded falls short of the actual cash by a significant percentage. What method of money laundering is this?
Correct
Overstating revenues occurs when the money launderer records more income on a business’s books than the business actually generates. The fictitious revenue accounts for the illegal funds that are secretly inserted into the company.
Incorrect
Overstating revenues occurs when the money launderer records more income on a business’s books than the business actually generates. The fictitious revenue accounts for the illegal funds that are secretly inserted into the company.
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Question 4 of 120
4. Question
In money laundering, when revenues are overstated, expenses are also overstated to reduce the tax liability incurred. Which of the following strategies is not used to inflate expenses?
Correct
Overstating expenses can be accomplished using various methods. Some examples include: Having imaginary employees, Fictitious fees, and Inflated invoices.
Incorrect
Overstating expenses can be accomplished using various methods. Some examples include: Having imaginary employees, Fictitious fees, and Inflated invoices.
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Question 5 of 120
5. Question
The following methods can be used to launder money in the real estate industry, except:
Correct
There are various methods to launder money in the real estate industry. Some of the common schemes include:
1. Loan-back schemes
2. Mortgage schemes
3. Shell entities
4. Appraisal fraud
5. Monetary instrumentsIncorrect
There are various methods to launder money in the real estate industry. Some of the common schemes include:
1. Loan-back schemes
2. Mortgage schemes
3. Shell entities
4. Appraisal fraud
5. Monetary instruments -
Question 6 of 120
6. Question
Goods and services can be paid for in advance of their actual purchase. These prepaid items are divided into three groups. Which of the following best describes closed loop items?
Correct
Closed-loop prepaid systems are those where the user may only use the stored value to purchase items from the issuing organization or its affiliates. Also, they may not be redeemed for cash, even at the issuing organization.
Incorrect
Closed-loop prepaid systems are those where the user may only use the stored value to purchase items from the issuing organization or its affiliates. Also, they may not be redeemed for cash, even at the issuing organization.
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Question 7 of 120
7. Question
The following prepaid items have high potentials to aid money laundering, excluding:
Correct
The most attractive aspect of prepaid items to money launderers is that issuers of these items and the people who use them are under relatively fewer regulatory restrictions than traditional financial institutions and banking customers. Prepaid items also offer a greater degree of potential anonymity than basic credit or debit cards.
Incorrect
The most attractive aspect of prepaid items to money launderers is that issuers of these items and the people who use them are under relatively fewer regulatory restrictions than traditional financial institutions and banking customers. Prepaid items also offer a greater degree of potential anonymity than basic credit or debit cards.
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Question 8 of 120
8. Question
Regarding Money Services Business (MSB), which of the following statements is false?
Correct
Money services business (MSB) is a term used to define a regulatory class of non-depository financial service providers that transmit or convert money. It generally includes any business that operates in any of the following capacities: Currency exchangers; Check cashers; Money transmitters; Prepaid assess providers etc.
Incorrect
Money services business (MSB) is a term used to define a regulatory class of non-depository financial service providers that transmit or convert money. It generally includes any business that operates in any of the following capacities: Currency exchangers; Check cashers; Money transmitters; Prepaid assess providers etc.
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Question 9 of 120
9. Question
Gatekeepers facilitate access to financial services and money launderers have employed their services in so many ways. Which of the following is not included?
Correct
The function of transporting money to a site where it is converted into another form of currency is carried out by couriers.
Incorrect
The function of transporting money to a site where it is converted into another form of currency is carried out by couriers.
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Question 10 of 120
10. Question
Which term refers to the system through which individuals at different locations transfer money to each other using brokers but without direct physical or digital transfer of money?
Correct
Alternative remittance systems (also called parallel banking systems) are methods of transferring funds from a party at one location to another party without the use of formal banking institutions. Here, there is lack of direct physical or digital transfer of currency from the sender to the receiver. Instead, the payer transfers funds to a local broker who has a connection to another broker in the region where the payee is located.
Incorrect
Alternative remittance systems (also called parallel banking systems) are methods of transferring funds from a party at one location to another party without the use of formal banking institutions. Here, there is lack of direct physical or digital transfer of currency from the sender to the receiver. Instead, the payer transfers funds to a local broker who has a connection to another broker in the region where the payee is located.
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Question 11 of 120
11. Question
The following red flags raise suspicion of money laundering except:
Correct
Money launderers usually purchase investments in amounts considered beyond the customer’s apparent means.
Incorrect
Money launderers usually purchase investments in amounts considered beyond the customer’s apparent means.
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Question 12 of 120
12. Question
The Global Program against Money Laundering, established by the UN seeks to achieve which of the following?
Correct
The UN established the Global Programme a gainst Money Laundering (GPML), which provides member states with assistance to comply with international Anti Money Laundering standards.
Incorrect
The UN established the Global Programme a gainst Money Laundering (GPML), which provides member states with assistance to comply with international Anti Money Laundering standards.
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Question 13 of 120
13. Question
Which of the following is not a UN program to combat money laundering?
Correct
The Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering (FATF) is one of the three leading international organisations fighting against money laundering. The others include: UN and Egmont Group.
Incorrect
The Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering (FATF) is one of the three leading international organisations fighting against money laundering. The others include: UN and Egmont Group.
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Question 14 of 120
14. Question
Following the attack on the World Trade Centre, the FATF recommendations were amended to include some special recommendations on Combating Terrorist Financing. How many of these special recommendations are there presently?
Correct
There were originally 40 FATF recommendations regarding money laundering. Shortly after the World Trade Center attack in 2001, the FATF mandate was expanded beyond money laundering to support the worldwide effort to combat terrorist financing (CFT). Eight Special Recommendations on Combating Terrorist Financing were initially adopted but later revised in 2004 and expanded to the Nine Special Recommendations.
Incorrect
There were originally 40 FATF recommendations regarding money laundering. Shortly after the World Trade Center attack in 2001, the FATF mandate was expanded beyond money laundering to support the worldwide effort to combat terrorist financing (CFT). Eight Special Recommendations on Combating Terrorist Financing were initially adopted but later revised in 2004 and expanded to the Nine Special Recommendations.
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Question 15 of 120
15. Question
The FATF requires all member countries to do the following except:
Correct
Within certain limits, countries and institutions are free to determine the extent of measures appropriate to the specific risk of money laundering or terrorist financing they face. However, all countries are required to (1) establish a financial intelligence unit to receive suspicious transaction reports, (2) designate law enforcement agencies for AML/CFT investigations, and (3) involve financial supervisors in AML/CFT initiatives.
Incorrect
Within certain limits, countries and institutions are free to determine the extent of measures appropriate to the specific risk of money laundering or terrorist financing they face. However, all countries are required to (1) establish a financial intelligence unit to receive suspicious transaction reports, (2) designate law enforcement agencies for AML/CFT investigations, and (3) involve financial supervisors in AML/CFT initiatives.
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Question 16 of 120
16. Question
The FATF recommendations define financial institutions to include the following, except:
Correct
The Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering (FATF) recommendations defined financial institutions to include: Depository and lending institutions (i.e., traditional banks); Money services businesses; Financial guarantors; Securities brokers or traders, including those who trade in exchange, interest rate, and index instruments; Security issuing services; Investment portfolio managers etc.
Incorrect
The Financial Action Task Force on Money Laundering (FATF) recommendations defined financial institutions to include: Depository and lending institutions (i.e., traditional banks); Money services businesses; Financial guarantors; Securities brokers or traders, including those who trade in exchange, interest rate, and index instruments; Security issuing services; Investment portfolio managers etc.
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Question 17 of 120
17. Question
Which of the following statements is false?
Correct
The FATF recommendations broadened the parties that should file suspicious transaction reports to include designated nonfinancial businesses and professions (DNFBPs) like:
1. Casinos (including Internet- and ship-based casinos)
2. Real estate agents
3. Dealers in precious metals and stones
4. Legal professionals at professional firms (not internal legal professionals)
5. Trust and company service providersIncorrect
The FATF recommendations broadened the parties that should file suspicious transaction reports to include designated nonfinancial businesses and professions (DNFBPs) like:
1. Casinos (including Internet- and ship-based casinos)
2. Real estate agents
3. Dealers in precious metals and stones
4. Legal professionals at professional firms (not internal legal professionals)
5. Trust and company service providers -
Question 18 of 120
18. Question
Concerning the Egmont Group, which of the following statements is true?
Correct
The Egmont Group is an informal international network of financial intelligence units (FIUs) designed to fight money laundering by encouraging global cooperation and mutual exchange of information. It exists to increase the sharing of information and coordination between FIUs, and also, offers training for FIU personnel.
Incorrect
The Egmont Group is an informal international network of financial intelligence units (FIUs) designed to fight money laundering by encouraging global cooperation and mutual exchange of information. It exists to increase the sharing of information and coordination between FIUs, and also, offers training for FIU personnel.
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Question 19 of 120
19. Question
Regarding the third directive, which of the following is true?
Correct
The European Commission enforces several European Union (EU) policies that involve anti-money laundering efforts. The most prevalent is the Third Anti-Money Laundering Directive (Third Directive). This Directive does not only apply to the financial sector. It is also, applicable to lawyers, notaries, accountants, real estate agents, casinos, company service providers, as well as all providers of goods when cash payments are made or received in excess of €15,000 (the Fourth Directive, which has now replaced this directive, lowers this threshold to €10,000).
Incorrect
The European Commission enforces several European Union (EU) policies that involve anti-money laundering efforts. The most prevalent is the Third Anti-Money Laundering Directive (Third Directive). This Directive does not only apply to the financial sector. It is also, applicable to lawyers, notaries, accountants, real estate agents, casinos, company service providers, as well as all providers of goods when cash payments are made or received in excess of €15,000 (the Fourth Directive, which has now replaced this directive, lowers this threshold to €10,000).
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Question 20 of 120
20. Question
As part of the enforcement and prevention strategies of money laundering, financial institutions should implement Know-Your-Customer Programs. Which of the following is not a component of this program?
Correct
Generally, there are two components to an effective KYC program. First, a financial institution should identify and conduct background checks on all customers opening an account to prevent the creation of fictitious accounts. Second, financial institutions should monitor existing customers’ activity to recognize when customers might be involved in suspicious activity.
Incorrect
Generally, there are two components to an effective KYC program. First, a financial institution should identify and conduct background checks on all customers opening an account to prevent the creation of fictitious accounts. Second, financial institutions should monitor existing customers’ activity to recognize when customers might be involved in suspicious activity.
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Question 21 of 120
21. Question
What is the federal agency that seeks to protect the integrity of Canada’s bankruptcy and insolvency system called?
Correct
The Office of the Superintendent of Bankruptcy (OSB) is a federal agency that seeks to protect the integrity of Canada’s bankruptcy and insolvency system.
Incorrect
The Office of the Superintendent of Bankruptcy (OSB) is a federal agency that seeks to protect the integrity of Canada’s bankruptcy and insolvency system.
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Question 22 of 120
22. Question
Which of the following terms is best defines as a neutral professional assigned to administer an estate in bankruptcy?
Correct
A bankruptcy trustee is a neutral professional assigned to administer an estate in bankruptcy.
Incorrect
A bankruptcy trustee is a neutral professional assigned to administer an estate in bankruptcy.
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Question 23 of 120
23. Question
Which of the following terms define the process that allows the debtor to get a court order under which some or all of his debts may be eliminated?
Correct
Liquidation is one of the common bankruptcy proceedings and involves a process that allows the debtor to get a court or administrative order under which some or all of his debts may be eliminated.
Incorrect
Liquidation is one of the common bankruptcy proceedings and involves a process that allows the debtor to get a court or administrative order under which some or all of his debts may be eliminated.
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Question 24 of 120
24. Question
What’s is the aim of reorganisation bankruptcies?
Correct
Reorganization bankruptcies seeks to give the debtor some rest from creditors so that it can reorganize its financial affairs and continue as a going concern. This is unlike liquidation which aims at giving the debtor a fresh start.
Incorrect
Reorganization bankruptcies seeks to give the debtor some rest from creditors so that it can reorganize its financial affairs and continue as a going concern. This is unlike liquidation which aims at giving the debtor a fresh start.
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Question 25 of 120
25. Question
Which of the following is not a bankruptcy fraud scheme?
Correct
Some common bankruptcy schemes include: concealed assets; the planed bustout and credit card bustout; multiple filings; forged filings; typing services or petition mills.
Incorrect
Some common bankruptcy schemes include: concealed assets; the planed bustout and credit card bustout; multiple filings; forged filings; typing services or petition mills.
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Question 26 of 120
26. Question
Which of the following is not a feature of the planned bustout scheme?
Correct
A bustout is a planned and fraudulent bankruptcy scheme which usually involves an apparently legitimate business ordering large quantities of goods on credit, and then disposing of those goods through legitimate or illegitimate channels. Since the point of the bustout scheme is to quickly resell the goods for cash, the fraudster is much more likely to purchase more liquid items like inventory. Organised crime is occasionally involved.
Incorrect
A bustout is a planned and fraudulent bankruptcy scheme which usually involves an apparently legitimate business ordering large quantities of goods on credit, and then disposing of those goods through legitimate or illegitimate channels. Since the point of the bustout scheme is to quickly resell the goods for cash, the fraudster is much more likely to purchase more liquid items like inventory. Organised crime is occasionally involved.
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Question 27 of 120
27. Question
What term is used to describe an insolvency in which the insolvent debtor has assets in more than one country?
Correct
A cross-border insolvency is an insolvency in which the insolvent debtor has assets in more than one country or where some of the insolvent debtor’s creditors are from different countries.
Incorrect
A cross-border insolvency is an insolvency in which the insolvent debtor has assets in more than one country or where some of the insolvent debtor’s creditors are from different countries.
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Question 28 of 120
28. Question
The World Bank developed the Principles and Guidelines for Effective Insolvency and Creditor Rights Systems which embodies several propositions, excluding:
Correct
The World Bank principles are based on certain propositions which include:
1. Effective systems respond to national needs and problems
2. Transparency, accountability, and predictability are fundamental to sound credit relationships
3. Legal and institutional mechanisms must align incentives and disincentives across a broad spectrum of market-based systemsIncorrect
The World Bank principles are based on certain propositions which include:
1. Effective systems respond to national needs and problems
2. Transparency, accountability, and predictability are fundamental to sound credit relationships
3. Legal and institutional mechanisms must align incentives and disincentives across a broad spectrum of market-based systems -
Question 29 of 120
29. Question
Concerning the World Bank Principles, which of the following statements is false?
Correct
The World Bank principles mphasize contextual, integrated solutions, and the policy choices involved in developing those solutions.
Incorrect
The World Bank principles mphasize contextual, integrated solutions, and the policy choices involved in developing those solutions.
-
Question 30 of 120
30. Question
The following are not pillars of a modern credit economy, except:
Correct
The ability to own and freely transfer ownership interests in a property is one of the key pillars of a modern credit economy.
Incorrect
The ability to own and freely transfer ownership interests in a property is one of the key pillars of a modern credit economy.
-
Question 31 of 120
31. Question
The following are objectives of an effective insolvency system, except:
Correct
Insolvency systems aim at preventing (not promoting) the premature dismemberment of a debtor’s assets by creditors seeking quick judgement.
Incorrect
Insolvency systems aim at preventing (not promoting) the premature dismemberment of a debtor’s assets by creditors seeking quick judgement.
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Question 32 of 120
32. Question
During most bankruptcy processes, a person or group is granted administrative powers to oversee the process. These appointees can be called the following, except:
Correct
Most bankruptcy processes, whether through a court or otherwise, involve granting a person or group administrative powers to oversee the processes. The name of this appointee varies among jurisdictions, but often is called the administrator, trustee, receiver, examiner, or supervisor.
Incorrect
Most bankruptcy processes, whether through a court or otherwise, involve granting a person or group administrative powers to oversee the processes. The name of this appointee varies among jurisdictions, but often is called the administrator, trustee, receiver, examiner, or supervisor.
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Question 33 of 120
33. Question
Which of the following is not among the powers of an administrator overseeing a bankruptcy process?
Correct
The World Bank Principles recommend that the administrator of a bankruptcy process have broad powers, including:
1. Right to cancel fraudulent contracts or transactions entered into by the debtor;
2. Powers to collect, preserve, and dispose of the debtor’s property;
3. Ability to interfere with contracts to meet the objectives of the insolvency process;
4. Powers to examine the debtor, the debtor’s agents, or other people with knowledge of the debtor’s affairs and compel them to provide relevant information.Incorrect
The World Bank Principles recommend that the administrator of a bankruptcy process have broad powers, including:
1. Right to cancel fraudulent contracts or transactions entered into by the debtor;
2. Powers to collect, preserve, and dispose of the debtor’s property;
3. Ability to interfere with contracts to meet the objectives of the insolvency process;
4. Powers to examine the debtor, the debtor’s agents, or other people with knowledge of the debtor’s affairs and compel them to provide relevant information. -
Question 34 of 120
34. Question
Which of the following is not among the three preferred approaches in reorganisation proceedings?
Correct
There are typically three preferred approaches in reorganization proceedings: 1. Exclusive control of the proceeding is entrusted to an independent insolvency representative.
2. Governance responsibilities remain invested in management.
3. Supervision of management is undertaken by an impartial and independent insolvency representative or supervisor.Under the second and third approaches, complete administration power should be shifted to the insolvency representative if management proves incompetent, negligent, or has engaged in fraud or other misbehavior.
Incorrect
There are typically three preferred approaches in reorganization proceedings: 1. Exclusive control of the proceeding is entrusted to an independent insolvency representative.
2. Governance responsibilities remain invested in management.
3. Supervision of management is undertaken by an impartial and independent insolvency representative or supervisor.Under the second and third approaches, complete administration power should be shifted to the insolvency representative if management proves incompetent, negligent, or has engaged in fraud or other misbehavior.
-
Question 35 of 120
35. Question
Strong regulations and institutions are vital for an effective insolvency system. There are three main elements of the institutional structure; which of the following does not belong?
Correct
The institutional framework has three main elements:
1. The institutions responsible for insolvency proceedings
2. The operational system through which cases and decisions are processed
3. The requirements needed to preserve the integrity of those institutions.Incorrect
The institutional framework has three main elements:
1. The institutions responsible for insolvency proceedings
2. The operational system through which cases and decisions are processed
3. The requirements needed to preserve the integrity of those institutions. -
Question 36 of 120
36. Question
Which of the following is not a key feature of a modern reorganisation proceeding?
Correct
The main features and principles of a modern reorganisation proceeding includes:
Plan voting and consideration; plan voting and approval; plan implantation and amendment; discharge and binding effects; plan revocation and closure.Incorrect
The main features and principles of a modern reorganisation proceeding includes:
Plan voting and consideration; plan voting and approval; plan implantation and amendment; discharge and binding effects; plan revocation and closure. -
Question 37 of 120
37. Question
Which of the following terms is defined as the duplicitous practices in the purchase or sale of securities?
Correct
Securities fraud refers to deceptive practices in the purchase or sale of securities, and the term covers a broad range of illegal activities.
Incorrect
Securities fraud refers to deceptive practices in the purchase or sale of securities, and the term covers a broad range of illegal activities.
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Question 38 of 120
38. Question
The two main U.S. federal securities laws that have the most elaborate and functionally indistinguishable definition of securities are?
Correct
One of the most elaborate definitions of security is set forth in the two main pieces of federal securities law in the United States: the U.S. Securities Act of 1933 and the U.S. Exchange Act of 1934.
Incorrect
One of the most elaborate definitions of security is set forth in the two main pieces of federal securities law in the United States: the U.S. Securities Act of 1933 and the U.S. Exchange Act of 1934.
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Question 39 of 120
39. Question
Who should the certified fraud examiner consult when legal questions arise during a fraud examination?
Correct
The Certified Fraud Examiner always should consult with legal advisors if legal questions arise during a fraud examination.
Incorrect
The Certified Fraud Examiner always should consult with legal advisors if legal questions arise during a fraud examination.
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Question 40 of 120
40. Question
What does the success of a fraud examination depend on?
Correct
The success of an investigation hinges on the fraud examiner following the proper legal procedures, whether dealing with a suspect’s rights, collecting documents, or interviewing witnesses.
Incorrect
The success of an investigation hinges on the fraud examiner following the proper legal procedures, whether dealing with a suspect’s rights, collecting documents, or interviewing witnesses.
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Question 41 of 120
41. Question
What term refers to the legal means of lowering one’s tax bill?
Correct
Tax avoidance refers to a legal means of lowering one’s tax bill through legitimate deductions, credits, and shelters.
Incorrect
Tax avoidance refers to a legal means of lowering one’s tax bill through legitimate deductions, credits, and shelters.
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Question 42 of 120
42. Question
To determine whether an individual or organisation has committed tax evasion, which of the following is the most important distinctive factor?
Correct
The most important distinction in determining whether an individual or company has committed tax evasion is whether the party acted with criminal intent. Intent is a mental attitude with which an individual acts. To establish criminal liability for tax evasion, most jurisdictions require a willful attempt to evade or defeat taxes in an unlawful manner.
Incorrect
The most important distinction in determining whether an individual or company has committed tax evasion is whether the party acted with criminal intent. Intent is a mental attitude with which an individual acts. To establish criminal liability for tax evasion, most jurisdictions require a willful attempt to evade or defeat taxes in an unlawful manner.
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Question 43 of 120
43. Question
In tax law, the wilful evasion of tax can be inferred from the following conducts, except:
Correct
For the purpose of tax law, a good faith or legitimate misunderstanding of the law based on the law’s complexity typically negates willfulness (the voluntary, intentional violation of a known legal duty).
Incorrect
For the purpose of tax law, a good faith or legitimate misunderstanding of the law based on the law’s complexity typically negates willfulness (the voluntary, intentional violation of a known legal duty).
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Question 44 of 120
44. Question
Which of the following statements is false?
Correct
It’s important to keep in mind that the presence of willfulness is important for determining criminal liability for tax fraud, but violations of proper tax procedures can still result in fees and interest penalties. Honest mistakes and misinterpretations of the law will usually not prevent such fines.
Incorrect
It’s important to keep in mind that the presence of willfulness is important for determining criminal liability for tax fraud, but violations of proper tax procedures can still result in fees and interest penalties. Honest mistakes and misinterpretations of the law will usually not prevent such fines.
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Question 45 of 120
45. Question
What term refers to investments made to produce tax write-offs, generate deductions, and generally yield a tax benefit to the investor?
Correct
Tax shelters are investments that are designed to yield a tax benefit to the investor. Such investments are made to produce tax write-offs, generate deductions, or convert ordinary income into capital gains taxed at a lower rate.
Incorrect
Tax shelters are investments that are designed to yield a tax benefit to the investor. Such investments are made to produce tax write-offs, generate deductions, or convert ordinary income into capital gains taxed at a lower rate.
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Question 46 of 120
46. Question
Which of the following is a circumstantial evidence of tax fraud?
Correct
Circumstantial evidence is evidence that tends to prove or disprove facts in issue indirectly, by inference.
Certain circumstances constitute circumstantial evidence of tax fraud, including:
1. Illicit income, which can be proved by showing that the subject’s assets or expenditures for a given period exceed that which can be accounted for from admitted sources of income
2. Income in excess of deposits (e.g., audits of service industry people in Texas led to assessments of several thousand dollars in back taxes and penalties).Incorrect
Circumstantial evidence is evidence that tends to prove or disprove facts in issue indirectly, by inference.
Certain circumstances constitute circumstantial evidence of tax fraud, including:
1. Illicit income, which can be proved by showing that the subject’s assets or expenditures for a given period exceed that which can be accounted for from admitted sources of income
2. Income in excess of deposits (e.g., audits of service industry people in Texas led to assessments of several thousand dollars in back taxes and penalties). -
Question 47 of 120
47. Question
The following are task evasion schemes, except:
Correct
Some common types of tax evasion schemes include:
1. Income and wealth tax evasion
2. Falsifying tax deductions
3. Tax credit schemes
4. Consumption tax schemesIncorrect
Some common types of tax evasion schemes include:
1. Income and wealth tax evasion
2. Falsifying tax deductions
3. Tax credit schemes
4. Consumption tax schemes -
Question 48 of 120
48. Question
There are various forms of income and wealth tax evasion. Which of the following is excluded?
Correct
Common forms of criminal income and wealth tax evasion include:
1. Failing to submit a report of one’s taxable income, if such a report is required
2. Intentionally misrepresenting one’s income or wealth
3. Pretending to transfer assets to another person or entity to lower tax liability
4. Intentionally failing to withhold the taxable portion of an employee’s income, if so required
5. Failing to report foreign bank accounts or other taxable assets, if required
6. Falsely claiming income was earned in another jurisdiction to lower tax liabilityIncorrect
Common forms of criminal income and wealth tax evasion include:
1. Failing to submit a report of one’s taxable income, if such a report is required
2. Intentionally misrepresenting one’s income or wealth
3. Pretending to transfer assets to another person or entity to lower tax liability
4. Intentionally failing to withhold the taxable portion of an employee’s income, if so required
5. Failing to report foreign bank accounts or other taxable assets, if required
6. Falsely claiming income was earned in another jurisdiction to lower tax liability -
Question 49 of 120
49. Question
What term refers to those taxes collected from the proceeds of the sale of goods or services?
Correct
Consumption taxes are those collected from the proceeds of the sale of goods or services.
Incorrect
Consumption taxes are those collected from the proceeds of the sale of goods or services.
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Question 50 of 120
50. Question
Which of the following is true regarding tax credits?
Correct
Tax credits are an amount subtracted from a person’s or entity’s tax liability, but are not necessarily tied to an expense. It’s important to note that some tax credits might result in a tax refund; if the credits are greater than the person’s total tax liability.
Incorrect
Tax credits are an amount subtracted from a person’s or entity’s tax liability, but are not necessarily tied to an expense. It’s important to note that some tax credits might result in a tax refund; if the credits are greater than the person’s total tax liability.
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Question 51 of 120
51. Question
Which of the underlisted is not a consumption task?
Correct
Some of the common consumption taxes are: sales tax, VAT, excise tax.
Incorrect
Some of the common consumption taxes are: sales tax, VAT, excise tax.
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Question 52 of 120
52. Question
Which of the following is not a defence to allegations of tax fraud?
Correct
Claim of right doctrine describes a situation where a taxpayer may seek to avoid a tax by claiming that he does not have an unrestricted right to the money at issue (or evade the tax by claiming that his rights are restricted when in fact they are not).
Incorrect
Claim of right doctrine describes a situation where a taxpayer may seek to avoid a tax by claiming that he does not have an unrestricted right to the money at issue (or evade the tax by claiming that his rights are restricted when in fact they are not).
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Question 53 of 120
53. Question
Which of the following does not constitutes a violation of duty to preserve?
Correct
In common law jurisdictions, employees may have a duty to preserve relevant information. A breech of this duty occurs when information that is relevant to anticipated or existing litigation is lost, destroyed, or otherwise made unavailable.
Incorrect
In common law jurisdictions, employees may have a duty to preserve relevant information. A breech of this duty occurs when information that is relevant to anticipated or existing litigation is lost, destroyed, or otherwise made unavailable.
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Question 54 of 120
54. Question
Employers in EU-member countries are required to adhere to the certain principles before conducting a workplace search on employees. Which of the following does not apply?
Correct
Using the data collected for another purpose violates the principle of finality. This principle states that: The data must be collected for a specific, explicit, and legitimate purpose and not used for any other purpose.
Incorrect
Using the data collected for another purpose violates the principle of finality. This principle states that: The data must be collected for a specific, explicit, and legitimate purpose and not used for any other purpose.
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Question 55 of 120
55. Question
Concerning the right to remain silent, which of the following statements is true?
Correct
The right to remain silent is centered on the right of those who are suspected of committing a crime to refuse to answer questions by the government when the questioning occurs under the threat of judicially imposed punishment. It is, however, not applicable when someone is being questioned by a private party acting on its own. This right can be exercised at both the investigative and trial stages of a criminal case.
Incorrect
The right to remain silent is centered on the right of those who are suspected of committing a crime to refuse to answer questions by the government when the questioning occurs under the threat of judicially imposed punishment. It is, however, not applicable when someone is being questioned by a private party acting on its own. This right can be exercised at both the investigative and trial stages of a criminal case.
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Question 56 of 120
56. Question
Which of the following is a false statement about search warrants?
Correct
The right to be free from unreasonable searches and seizures only protects individuals from actions by government authorities.
Incorrect
The right to be free from unreasonable searches and seizures only protects individuals from actions by government authorities.
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Question 57 of 120
57. Question
What term refers to the unprivileged written publication of false statements about a person that causes harm to that person’s reputation?
Correct
Defamation refers to the unprivileged publication of false statements about a person that causes harm to that person’s reputation.
When the statement is in writing, it is called libel whereas spoken statements are referred to as slander.Incorrect
Defamation refers to the unprivileged publication of false statements about a person that causes harm to that person’s reputation.
When the statement is in writing, it is called libel whereas spoken statements are referred to as slander. -
Question 58 of 120
58. Question
Which of the following is not an element of defamation?
Correct
To successfully make a case of defamation, the plaintiff must generally prove all of the following elements:
1. The defendant made an untrue statement of fact.
2. The statement was communicated (published) to third parties.
3. The statement was made on an unprivileged occasion.
4. The statement damaged the subject’s reputation.Incorrect
To successfully make a case of defamation, the plaintiff must generally prove all of the following elements:
1. The defendant made an untrue statement of fact.
2. The statement was communicated (published) to third parties.
3. The statement was made on an unprivileged occasion.
4. The statement damaged the subject’s reputation. -
Question 59 of 120
59. Question
To establish liability for public disclosure of private facts, the following elements must be proven except:
Correct
To establish liability for public disclosure of private facts, the plaintiff must prove all of the following elements:
1. The defendant made public statements about another party’s private life.
2. The statements were not of public concern.
3. The statements would be highly offensive to a reasonable person.Even if the statement at issue is true, liability can still arise.
Incorrect
To establish liability for public disclosure of private facts, the plaintiff must prove all of the following elements:
1. The defendant made public statements about another party’s private life.
2. The statements were not of public concern.
3. The statements would be highly offensive to a reasonable person.Even if the statement at issue is true, liability can still arise.
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Question 60 of 120
60. Question
To establish a case of false imprisonment, the following elements must be proven except:
Correct
To recover for a claim of false imprisonment, the plaintiff generally must prove all of the following elements:
1. The defendant used words or actions intended to restrain the plaintiff.
2. The defendant’s words or actions resulted in the restraint of the plaintiff without the plaintiff’s consent (i.e., against the plaintiff’s will) and without legal justification.
3. The plaintiff was aware that he was being restrained.Incorrect
To recover for a claim of false imprisonment, the plaintiff generally must prove all of the following elements:
1. The defendant used words or actions intended to restrain the plaintiff.
2. The defendant’s words or actions resulted in the restraint of the plaintiff without the plaintiff’s consent (i.e., against the plaintiff’s will) and without legal justification.
3. The plaintiff was aware that he was being restrained. -
Question 61 of 120
61. Question
Which of the following terms defines the improper expulsion of an employee in violation of actual or implied employment contract?
Correct
An employee is said to be wrongfully discharged when his/her employer terminates the employment for an improper reason (e.g., discrimination) in violation of actual or implied employment contract or company policies.
Incorrect
An employee is said to be wrongfully discharged when his/her employer terminates the employment for an improper reason (e.g., discrimination) in violation of actual or implied employment contract or company policies.
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Question 62 of 120
62. Question
What term describes the law that deal with offenses of a public nature?
Correct
Criminal law deals with offenses of a public nature, whereas civil law is the body of law that provides remedies for violations of private rights.
Incorrect
Criminal law deals with offenses of a public nature, whereas civil law is the body of law that provides remedies for violations of private rights.
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Question 63 of 120
63. Question
Which of the following statement is false?
Correct
A custodial arrest occurs whenever a government officer has a person in custody, meaning an officer has indicated that the person is not free to leave.
Incorrect
A custodial arrest occurs whenever a government officer has a person in custody, meaning an officer has indicated that the person is not free to leave.
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Question 64 of 120
64. Question
Under the United Nations’ International Covenant on and Political Rights (ICCPR), which of the following rights of criminal suspects are recognised?
Correct
The ICCPR recognises the right to fair hearing; presumption of innocence; right to appeal; right to be informed of charges; freedom from improper arrest etc.
Incorrect
The ICCPR recognises the right to fair hearing; presumption of innocence; right to appeal; right to be informed of charges; freedom from improper arrest etc.
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Question 65 of 120
65. Question
What term is defined as an assertion by a defendant that seeks to explain away liability for damages in civil proceedings?
Correct
A defense is an assertion by a defendant that seeks to explain away guilt (or liability for damages in civil proceedings).
Incorrect
A defense is an assertion by a defendant that seeks to explain away guilt (or liability for damages in civil proceedings).
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Question 66 of 120
66. Question
Under Financial Services and Markets Act (FSMA), which of the following is not considered an investment?
Correct
Under FSMA, an investment is a regulated activity that is specified in the classes of activity and categories of investment in Part II of Schedule 2 to the FSMA. Securities, Deposits, Loans on lands, Options, and Futures are some examples.
Incorrect
Under FSMA, an investment is a regulated activity that is specified in the classes of activity and categories of investment in Part II of Schedule 2 to the FSMA. Securities, Deposits, Loans on lands, Options, and Futures are some examples.
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Question 67 of 120
67. Question
In the Republic of South Africa, the definition of securities as found in the Securities Services Act excludes which of the following?
Correct
Securities as outlined by the Securities Services Act excludes (i) money market instruments except for the purposes of Chapter IV; and (ii) any security contemplated in paragraph (a) specified by the registrar by notice in the Gazette.
Incorrect
Securities as outlined by the Securities Services Act excludes (i) money market instruments except for the purposes of Chapter IV; and (ii) any security contemplated in paragraph (a) specified by the registrar by notice in the Gazette.
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Question 68 of 120
68. Question
Which of these is not a type of investments most commonly recognized as securities?
Correct
The types of investments most commonly recognized as securities include: stocks, bonds, and certificates of deposit (CDs).
Incorrect
The types of investments most commonly recognized as securities include: stocks, bonds, and certificates of deposit (CDs).
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Question 69 of 120
69. Question
What term refers to a certificate of debt issued by a corporation guaranteeing payment, plus interest, on the original investment by a specified future date?
Correct
A Bond is a certificate of debt issued by a government or corporation guaranteeing payment, plus interest, on the original investment by a specified future date.
Incorrect
A Bond is a certificate of debt issued by a government or corporation guaranteeing payment, plus interest, on the original investment by a specified future date.
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Question 70 of 120
70. Question
The following are derivative instruments, except:
Correct
Derivatives are financial instruments whose value is based on an underlying asset or economic factor. Example, futures and options.
Incorrect
Derivatives are financial instruments whose value is based on an underlying asset or economic factor. Example, futures and options.
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Question 71 of 120
71. Question
What term refers to a method of settling futures contracts by cash rather than by physical delivery?
Correct
Cash settlement is a method of settling futures contracts by cash rather than by physical delivery.
Incorrect
Cash settlement is a method of settling futures contracts by cash rather than by physical delivery.
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Question 72 of 120
72. Question
What is the primary means of fulfilling one’s obligation under a future’s contract?
Correct
The primary means of fulfilling one’s obligation under a future’s contract is to enter into an offsetting contract. Through this process, a purchase of futures contracts is liquidated through the sale of an equal number of futures contracts with the same delivery month, thus closing out a position.
Incorrect
The primary means of fulfilling one’s obligation under a future’s contract is to enter into an offsetting contract. Through this process, a purchase of futures contracts is liquidated through the sale of an equal number of futures contracts with the same delivery month, thus closing out a position.
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Question 73 of 120
73. Question
Which of the following statement is true regarding options?
Correct
An option contract confers a right — not an obligation — to the option buyer to take delivery of the underlying asset and imposes obligations on the option seller. This is the major difference between the options and futures contracts.
Incorrect
An option contract confers a right — not an obligation — to the option buyer to take delivery of the underlying asset and imposes obligations on the option seller. This is the major difference between the options and futures contracts.
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Question 74 of 120
74. Question
Which of the following best defines a call option?
Correct
A call option is the right, but not the obligation, to purchase the underlying security at the strike (exercise) price by the option’s expiration date.
Incorrect
A call option is the right, but not the obligation, to purchase the underlying security at the strike (exercise) price by the option’s expiration date.
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Question 75 of 120
75. Question
Which of the following is not among the styles of options?
Correct
There are various styles of options. These include: American options, European options, Exotic options, and Plain vanilla options.
Incorrect
There are various styles of options. These include: American options, European options, Exotic options, and Plain vanilla options.
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Question 76 of 120
76. Question
Which of the following best describes the European option style?
Correct
The European option may only be exercised on expiration.
Incorrect
The European option may only be exercised on expiration.
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Question 77 of 120
77. Question
There are two values that make up option premiums: intrinsic value and time value. To have any intrinsic value, which of these must be true?
Correct
To have any intrinsic value, an option must be in the money. Out of the money options have only time value.
Incorrect
To have any intrinsic value, an option must be in the money. Out of the money options have only time value.
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Question 78 of 120
78. Question
A call option is said to be in the money when:
Correct
A call option is in the money when the price of the underlying security exceeds its strike price.
Incorrect
A call option is in the money when the price of the underlying security exceeds its strike price.
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Question 79 of 120
79. Question
Which of the following is not a type of investment that can qualify as investment contracts?
Correct
Many fraudulent schemes involving exotic investments can be argued to constitute the offer or sale of investment contracts. Some of them frequently qualify as investment contracts, example: Ponzi schemes; Illegal pyramid schemes; Prime-bank note schemes; Investment schemes involving precious metals or stones; Viaticals etc.
Incorrect
Many fraudulent schemes involving exotic investments can be argued to constitute the offer or sale of investment contracts. Some of them frequently qualify as investment contracts, example: Ponzi schemes; Illegal pyramid schemes; Prime-bank note schemes; Investment schemes involving precious metals or stones; Viaticals etc.
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Question 80 of 120
80. Question
A contract, transaction, or scheme is considered an investment contract if all of four basic elements are met. Which of the following is not included?
Correct
The leading global definition of an investment contract provides that a contract, transaction, or scheme is an investment contract if all of the following four elements are met:
1. There is an investment of money or other asset.
2. The investment is in a common enterprise.
3. The investment was made with expectations of making a profit.
4. The profits are to come solely from the efforts of people other than the investor.Incorrect
The leading global definition of an investment contract provides that a contract, transaction, or scheme is an investment contract if all of the following four elements are met:
1. There is an investment of money or other asset.
2. The investment is in a common enterprise.
3. The investment was made with expectations of making a profit.
4. The profits are to come solely from the efforts of people other than the investor. -
Question 81 of 120
81. Question
What is generally defined as an illegal business practice in which new investors’ money is used to make payments to earlier investors?
Correct
A Ponzi scheme is generally defined as an illegal business practice in which new investors’ money is used to make payments to earlier investors.
Incorrect
A Ponzi scheme is generally defined as an illegal business practice in which new investors’ money is used to make payments to earlier investors.
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Question 82 of 120
82. Question
In oil and gas investment contract, which of the following is not a type of misrepresentation often encountered?
Correct
In disproportionate royalties, insiders might be assigned the majority of royalties while investors receive only a small portion.
Incorrect
In disproportionate royalties, insiders might be assigned the majority of royalties while investors receive only a small portion.
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Question 83 of 120
83. Question
What term describes the type of misrepresentation where a promoter declares a good well dry in order to reap the benefits of a productive well later when the investors have given up?
Correct
Self dealing describes the situation where a promoter declares a good well dry so he can enjoy the profits of a productive well later when the investors have given up. On the other hand, dry holes describe a situation where the promoter completes dry holes (wells drilled for oil or gas but without yield) primarily to improve his completion record and collect completion funds from investors.
Incorrect
Self dealing describes the situation where a promoter declares a good well dry so he can enjoy the profits of a productive well later when the investors have given up. On the other hand, dry holes describe a situation where the promoter completes dry holes (wells drilled for oil or gas but without yield) primarily to improve his completion record and collect completion funds from investors.
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Question 84 of 120
84. Question
Which of these is not a typical hedge fund fraud committed by hedge fund managers?
Correct
Invalid lease is a form of misrepresentation in the oil, gas and mineral interests where the promoters frequently do not have a valid mineral rights lease.
Incorrect
Invalid lease is a form of misrepresentation in the oil, gas and mineral interests where the promoters frequently do not have a valid mineral rights lease.
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Question 85 of 120
85. Question
What term is defined as a contract in which one party makes an unconditional written promise to pay a sum of money to another party under specific terms, at a stated time, or on demand?
Correct
A promissory note is a contract in which one party (the maker or issuer) makes an unconditional promise in writing to pay a sum of money to the other party (the payee), under specific terms, at a stated time, or on demand of the payee.
Incorrect
A promissory note is a contract in which one party (the maker or issuer) makes an unconditional promise in writing to pay a sum of money to the other party (the payee), under specific terms, at a stated time, or on demand of the payee.
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Question 86 of 120
86. Question
What is the primary purpose of the securities regulation?
Correct
The primary purpose of the securities regulation is to balance the need of businesses to raise capital against the need to protect investors.
Incorrect
The primary purpose of the securities regulation is to balance the need of businesses to raise capital against the need to protect investors.
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Question 87 of 120
87. Question
What term refers to a market in which stocks, bonds, and other securities are traded?
Correct
Securities exchange (stock exchange) is a market in which stocks, bonds, and other securities are traded.
Incorrect
Securities exchange (stock exchange) is a market in which stocks, bonds, and other securities are traded.
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Question 88 of 120
88. Question
Which of the following is not among the top three most relevant international securities regulatory institutions?
Correct
There are numerous international bodies involved in the regulation or governance of international securities trading. The most important of these are the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (Basel Committee), the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO), and the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB).
Incorrect
There are numerous international bodies involved in the regulation or governance of international securities trading. The most important of these are the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (Basel Committee), the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO), and the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB).
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Question 89 of 120
89. Question
Which of the following is not among the main aims of the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO)?
Correct
The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (not the IOSCO) aims to enhance understanding of key supervisory issues and improve the quality of banking supervision worldwide.
Incorrect
The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (not the IOSCO) aims to enhance understanding of key supervisory issues and improve the quality of banking supervision worldwide.
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Question 90 of 120
90. Question
The IOSCO principles on securities regulation are based on the following objectives, except:
Correct
The IOSCO Principles are based on the following three objectives:
1. Investor protection
2. Ensuring fair, efficient, and transparent markets
3. Systemic risk reductionIncorrect
The IOSCO Principles are based on the following three objectives:
1. Investor protection
2. Ensuring fair, efficient, and transparent markets
3. Systemic risk reduction -
Question 91 of 120
91. Question
Which of the following IOSCO principles is for the Issuer?
Correct
The IOSCO principles are grouped into nine categories to enable practical implementation. The principles for issuers are:
1. There should be full, timely, and accurate disclosure of financial results and other information that is material to investors’ decisions.
2. Holders of securities in a company should be treated in a fair and equitable manner.
3. Accounting and auditing standards should be of a high and internationally acceptable quality.Incorrect
The IOSCO principles are grouped into nine categories to enable practical implementation. The principles for issuers are:
1. There should be full, timely, and accurate disclosure of financial results and other information that is material to investors’ decisions.
2. Holders of securities in a company should be treated in a fair and equitable manner.
3. Accounting and auditing standards should be of a high and internationally acceptable quality. -
Question 92 of 120
92. Question
The underlisted are powers of the European Securities and Markets Authority (ESMA), except:
Correct
The powers of ESMA include:
1. Creating drafts of technical standards that are legally binding on EU members
2. Dispute resolution between national securities authorities
3. Prohibiting financial products that threaten financial stability
4. Supervision of credit rating agencies
5. Carrying out on-site inspections
6. Entering into administrative agreements with supervisory authorities
7. Monitoring systems risk of cross-border financial institutionsIncorrect
The powers of ESMA include:
1. Creating drafts of technical standards that are legally binding on EU members
2. Dispute resolution between national securities authorities
3. Prohibiting financial products that threaten financial stability
4. Supervision of credit rating agencies
5. Carrying out on-site inspections
6. Entering into administrative agreements with supervisory authorities
7. Monitoring systems risk of cross-border financial institutions -
Question 93 of 120
93. Question
What term refers to the excessive trading of a customer account to generate commissions while disregarding the customer’s interests?
Correct
Churning is the excessive trading of a customer account to generate commissions while disregarding the customer’s interests.
Incorrect
Churning is the excessive trading of a customer account to generate commissions while disregarding the customer’s interests.
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Question 94 of 120
94. Question
What term refers to the securities fraud scheme that occurs when an a financial advisor solicits the trade of securities not offered by the brokerage firm with which he is affiliated?
Correct
Selling away is a securities fraud scheme that occurs when an investment professional (e.g., a registered representative, stock broker, or financial advisor) trades, or solicits the trade of, securities not held or offered by the brokerage firm with which he is affiliated.
Incorrect
Selling away is a securities fraud scheme that occurs when an investment professional (e.g., a registered representative, stock broker, or financial advisor) trades, or solicits the trade of, securities not held or offered by the brokerage firm with which he is affiliated.
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Question 95 of 120
95. Question
The following are red flags to look out for when suspecting that an entity is running a securities business without proper registration, excluding:
Correct
The following red flags might indicate that an entity is operating a security business without the proper license or registration:
1. Presence of previous criminal records
2. Unexplained gaps in a promoter’s work history
3. Previous complaints from customers
4. A history of regulatory problems
5. Questionable credentials
6. Website lacks background information or contains generic contact informationIncorrect
The following red flags might indicate that an entity is operating a security business without the proper license or registration:
1. Presence of previous criminal records
2. Unexplained gaps in a promoter’s work history
3. Previous complaints from customers
4. A history of regulatory problems
5. Questionable credentials
6. Website lacks background information or contains generic contact information -
Question 96 of 120
96. Question
Which of the following statements is true about block orders?
Correct
A block order is an order placed for the sale or purchase of a significant number of securities. Often, a block order occurs when several different accounts are combined on the same order.
Incorrect
A block order is an order placed for the sale or purchase of a significant number of securities. Often, a block order occurs when several different accounts are combined on the same order.
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Question 97 of 120
97. Question
Which of the following best defines penny stocks?
Correct
Penny stocks are low-priced (usually less than $5), speculative securities that are registered but do not meet the listing requirements of an exchange.
Incorrect
Penny stocks are low-priced (usually less than $5), speculative securities that are registered but do not meet the listing requirements of an exchange.
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Question 98 of 120
98. Question
What term describes the situation whereby order fillers on the exchange floor are allowed to trade for their own account and fill orders for customers?
Correct
Dual trading is described as a situation whereby order fillers on the exchange floor are allowed to trade for their own account and fill orders for customers.
Incorrect
Dual trading is described as a situation whereby order fillers on the exchange floor are allowed to trade for their own account and fill orders for customers.
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Question 99 of 120
99. Question
Which of the following is true about inside information?
Correct
Inside information is any material, nonpublic information about a security that is not generally available to the public and that could affect the security’s price.
Incorrect
Inside information is any material, nonpublic information about a security that is not generally available to the public and that could affect the security’s price.
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Question 100 of 120
100. Question
What term refers to the law that defines permissible conducts and penalties for violations of these conducts?
Correct
Substantive law defines the type of conduct permissible and the penalties for violation; it is composed of the basic laws of rights and duties.
Incorrect
Substantive law defines the type of conduct permissible and the penalties for violation; it is composed of the basic laws of rights and duties.
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Question 101 of 120
101. Question
Which body of law deals with the fundamental principles by which a government exercises its authority?
Correct
Constitutional law is the body of law established by a nation’s constitution, and it deals with the fundamental principles by which a government exercises its authority.
Incorrect
Constitutional law is the body of law established by a nation’s constitution, and it deals with the fundamental principles by which a government exercises its authority.
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Question 102 of 120
102. Question
Which of the following U.S constitutional amendment affords subjects in a criminal investigation the right to counsel and a speedy trial?
Correct
The Sixth Amendment affords subjects in a criminal investigation the right to counsel, the right to confront (cross-examine) the witnesses against them, and the right to a speedy trial.
Incorrect
The Sixth Amendment affords subjects in a criminal investigation the right to counsel, the right to confront (cross-examine) the witnesses against them, and the right to a speedy trial.
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Question 103 of 120
103. Question
Which type of law is referred to as judge-made law?
Correct
The common law consists of the usages and customs of a society as interpreted by the judiciary; it is often referred to as judge-made law.
Incorrect
The common law consists of the usages and customs of a society as interpreted by the judiciary; it is often referred to as judge-made law.
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Question 104 of 120
104. Question
Which of the following is enforced primarily through diplomatic means and for reasons of courtesy?
Correct
International law is enforced primarily through diplomacy and for reasons of courtesy or expediency.
Incorrect
International law is enforced primarily through diplomacy and for reasons of courtesy or expediency.
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Question 105 of 120
105. Question
Law can be divided into two categories. Which of the following is included?
Correct
There are two categories of law: substantive and procedural law.
Incorrect
There are two categories of law: substantive and procedural law.
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Question 106 of 120
106. Question
Regarding the federal system of government, which of the following is true?
Correct
The other major structural system of government, the federal system, features both a government at the center (called the federal government), along with semi-autonomous regional governments (often called states or provinces). Unlike unitary systems, not all governmental powers are held by a central authority.
Incorrect
The other major structural system of government, the federal system, features both a government at the center (called the federal government), along with semi-autonomous regional governments (often called states or provinces). Unlike unitary systems, not all governmental powers are held by a central authority.
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Question 107 of 120
107. Question
Which government body does not easily fit either a unitary or federal classification?
Correct
The European Union is one government body that does not easily fit either a unitary or federal classification. It consists of many countries that are considered autonomous.
Incorrect
The European Union is one government body that does not easily fit either a unitary or federal classification. It consists of many countries that are considered autonomous.
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Question 108 of 120
108. Question
What body of law provides remedy for violation of private rights?
Correct
Civil law is the body of law that provides remedies for violations of private rights. It is different from criminal law which pertains to crimes against the state.
Incorrect
Civil law is the body of law that provides remedies for violations of private rights. It is different from criminal law which pertains to crimes against the state.
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Question 109 of 120
109. Question
The following statements are true with the exception of:
Correct
Judges under common law systems are bound by precedent while judges under civil law systems are bound by the civil code.
Incorrect
Judges under common law systems are bound by precedent while judges under civil law systems are bound by the civil code.
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Question 110 of 120
110. Question
Which of the following judicial processes refer to the approach taken by courts to discover evidence in a case?
Correct
Adversarial and inquisitorial judicial processes refer to the approach that courts take to discover evidence in a case.
Incorrect
Adversarial and inquisitorial judicial processes refer to the approach that courts take to discover evidence in a case.
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Question 111 of 120
111. Question
What term refers to the judicial process in which the parties to a proceeding drive the discovery process?
Correct
Adversarial processes are those in which the parties to a proceeding drive the discovery process (the search for evidence). The theory behind this approach is that the competing interests of the parties will serve to expose the relevant facts of the case.
Incorrect
Adversarial processes are those in which the parties to a proceeding drive the discovery process (the search for evidence). The theory behind this approach is that the competing interests of the parties will serve to expose the relevant facts of the case.
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Question 112 of 120
112. Question
What term refers to the power of a court to hear and decide cases?
Correct
Jurisdiction is the power of a court to hear and decide a given case. It refers to both the subject matter and people over which lawful authority may be exercised by a court.
Incorrect
Jurisdiction is the power of a court to hear and decide a given case. It refers to both the subject matter and people over which lawful authority may be exercised by a court.
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Question 113 of 120
113. Question
What term refers to a complaint brought by the government, acting on behalf of citizens, against a person accused of violating a law?
Correct
A criminal action is a complaint brought by the government, acting on behalf of citizens and the interest of the jurisdiction, against a person accused of violating a law.
Incorrect
A criminal action is a complaint brought by the government, acting on behalf of citizens and the interest of the jurisdiction, against a person accused of violating a law.
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Question 114 of 120
114. Question
Which of the following is not required to successfully bring a civil wrong or delict action?
Correct
To successfully bring a civil wrong or delict action, there are generally three requirements:
1. A party must owe a duty to another party.
2. The party that owes the duty breaches that duty.
3. The breach results in losses.Incorrect
To successfully bring a civil wrong or delict action, there are generally three requirements:
1. A party must owe a duty to another party.
2. The party that owes the duty breaches that duty.
3. The breach results in losses. -
Question 115 of 120
115. Question
Which of the following is not considered a white-collar crime?
Correct
The following are some of the principal categories of fraud: perjury, bribery, illegal gratuity, fraudulent and negligent misrepresentation, conflicts if interest, concealment of material facts etc
Incorrect
The following are some of the principal categories of fraud: perjury, bribery, illegal gratuity, fraudulent and negligent misrepresentation, conflicts if interest, concealment of material facts etc
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Question 116 of 120
116. Question
What are items of value given to reward a decision, often after the recipient has made the decision called?
Correct
Illegal gratuities are items of value given to reward a decision, often after the recipient has made the decision.
Incorrect
Illegal gratuities are items of value given to reward a decision, often after the recipient has made the decision.
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Question 117 of 120
117. Question
What term defines the wrongful collection of another’s property with the intent to convert or to deprive the owner of its possession?
Correct
Larceny is defined as the wrongful taking of money or property of another with the intent to convert or to deprive the owner of its possession and use.
Incorrect
Larceny is defined as the wrongful taking of money or property of another with the intent to convert or to deprive the owner of its possession and use.
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Question 118 of 120
118. Question
What term is used to refer to a situation where one party to a contract fails to perform his contractual obligations without just cause?
Correct
A breach of contract occurs when one party to a contract fails to perform, or announces that it does not intend to perform, his contractual obligations without just cause.
Incorrect
A breach of contract occurs when one party to a contract fails to perform, or announces that it does not intend to perform, his contractual obligations without just cause.
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Question 119 of 120
119. Question
What is OECD an acronym for?
Correct
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), formed in 1961, is a forum for governments to cultivate and propagate socioeconomic policies that expand world trade, promote sustainable economic development, and improve living standards.
Incorrect
The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), formed in 1961, is a forum for governments to cultivate and propagate socioeconomic policies that expand world trade, promote sustainable economic development, and improve living standards.
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Question 120 of 120
120. Question
Which of the following best describes duty of care?
Correct
The duty of care means that people in a fiduciary relationship must act with such care as an ordinarily prudent person would employ in similar positions.
Incorrect
The duty of care means that people in a fiduciary relationship must act with such care as an ordinarily prudent person would employ in similar positions.