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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
What is the foreign risk and regulation guidelines for the United Kingdom according to the UK Bribery Act of 2010?
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UK Bribery Act of 2010
It says that the company is liable for corrupt acts committed by persons acting on behalf of the company and that it prohibits bribery of public officials and business-to-business bribery. -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which of the statements is considered a key change in the 6th Anti-Money Laundering Directive (6AMLD) of the European Union (EU)?
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In 6AMLD the EU, it is stated that ‘Criminal activity’ means any kind of criminal involvement in the commission of any offense punishable, in accordance with national law, by deprivation of liberty or a detention order for a maximum of more than one year.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
The EU member states will have until December 3, 2020, to adopt the 6AMLD into their national law, with regulated entities then needing to implement relevant regulations by June 3, 2021. What are the three purposes of the 6AMLD directive for financial institutions?
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Incorrect
The three purposes are criminal activity, property, and legal person.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
The PSD 2 was enforced on January 13, 2018, it is about the transparent communication for customers regarding current account charges, the statements are all compliance scope of PSD2, except?
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Compliance scope
PSD2 compliance scope are uniform requirements for the security of electronic payments, the abolition of additional charges claimed for card payments and clear rules for dealing with disputes and less responsibility for the customer in case of fraud. -
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
What are the other business processes that are related to the implementation of the AML/CTF risk governance framework?
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“The other business processes that are related to the implementation of the AML/CTF risk governance framework are transaction monitoring, sanction screening investigation, alert management, model risk management, currency transaction governance, and rapid response team.”
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
The risk governance framework is a comprehensive, written approach with policies and procedures enabling financial institutions to implement the framework across the entire financial institution. What is the definition of a policy according to Risk Management?
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Incorrect
For Risk Management, a policy is a high-level statement of intent defining the scope of coverage, identifying areas that are included and those which are explicitly excluded which are governed by the risk appetite statement.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Risk management for financial institutions contains a strategic plan, what does it imply for the future of an institution?
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A strategic plan will set forth the future direction of the financial institution in all aspects and appropriately consider the risk implications of each initiative. An initiative should be designed ultimately to either increase or maintain existing revenue directly or indirectly.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
In Risk Management Strategies which strategy uses insurance or disclaimers?
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Treat strategy is used for a risk that can be treated with insurance or disclaimers; however, this is not an acceptable strategy for AML/CTF risks.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
In financial institutions change is a constant factor, what are these two types of change?
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In financial institutions change is a constant factor, it can be at a horizontal level such as new front line units being created to address a market need and at a vertical level where a new product is being introduced into an existing market.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
In the policies and procedures of each institution record retention requirements are present, which of the following are record retention requirements?
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Incorrect
The record retention requirements includes currency transaction reports, suspicious activity reports, wire transfer records, PATRIOT Act Section 314(a) and 314(b) requests, special measures, national security letters, and exempt person designation.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Who are responsible in executing the quality control steps in a financial institution?
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The local managers or supervisors are responsible for quality control steps and are intended not only to immediately correct any issues that are identified during the execution of the transaction but also provide a commentary on the integrity of the operation.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following is true about Anlaytics?
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Analytics uses data to identify trends and their effect on previous decisions and evaluate performance.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
A critical component of the AML/CTF compliance program is transaction monitoring, which of the following can be included during monitoring transactions?
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Incorrect
Transaction monitoring can include the number of alerts generated analyzed by front line units, number of alerts raised to case analyzed by front line units, the average time to review each alert and Backlog of alert review.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
in Risk Mitigation, KPIs are designed to provide a summary of the past performance of major parts of the business such as key front line units and/or major products. They are useful in identifying underperforming areas and those which could benefit from more resources.
An example in the AML/CTF context could include Sanctions Screening, which statement is not applicable as Sanctions screening?Correct
Incorrect
Sanctions screening could include the number of customer records processed analyzed by front line units, number of payment records processed analyzed by front line units, number of positive matches analyzed by front line units, number of false matches analyzed by front line units and changes to the “black” and “white” lists.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Risk management consists of KPIs. What Key Performance Indicator (KPI) is the average time of investigations that could be included in the risk management report?
Correct
Incorrect
The average time of investigation could be included in the Case Management and Suspicious Activity Report filings.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
PSD2 has a compliance scope about transparent communication for customers regarding current account charges. It has three compliance scope as stated below, except:
Correct
Incorrect
Compliance scope:
PSD2 has compliance scope about transparent communication for customers regarding current account charges namely, uniform requirements for the security of electronic payments, the abolition of additional charges claimed for card payments and clear rules for dealing with disputes and less responsibility for the customer in case of fraud. -
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Why is the second Payment Services Directive (PSD2) implemented by the EU payment market?
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The PSD2 was implemented to solve or enhance a series of issues on the EU payment market.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
A risk-based approach comprises the development of an AML/CTF, which is not a component of the Risk-Based Approach?
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The following components which comprise the development of a risk-based approach to the development of an AML/CTF are identifying and measuring risk, developing applicable policies, procedures, systems, and controls; risk-based BSA compliance program.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
In the Risk Assessment Program, a Combination risk was discussed and identified its compositions to help with AML/CFT aiming to support the development of prevention and mitigation measures that are commensurate to the AML/CTF risks identified, which of the statements below is a combination risk?
Correct
Incorrect
Combination risk includes client risk, country risk, and product risk.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
The Risk Assessment Program introduced the Five-Step Approach, what is step one (1) in the Five-Step approach to risk assessment?
Correct
The first step is to make a complete inventory of the financial institution with a focus on AML and CTF.
Incorrect
The first step is to make a complete inventory of the financial institution with a focus on AML and CTF.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
The Know Your Customer (KYC) committee uses a process in their meetings, which process of these are they using to provide information about customer types?
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Incorrect
The KYC Committee uses the feedback loop in their meetings to provide information about customer types including, the number of recent alerts generated and STRs filed.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Under the Universal Beneficial Ownership (UBO), FATF Recommendation 24 stated which of the following?
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It states that countries should take measures to prevent the misuse of legal persons for money laundering or terrorist financing. It should ensure that there is adequate, accurate and timely information on the beneficial ownership and control of legal persons that can be obtained or accessed in a timely fashion by competent authorities.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
What does a financial institution need to be aware of if they are involved in a real estate transaction?
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If a financial institution is involved in a real estate transaction, it should be aware of the FinCen Geographic Targeting Order (GTO), requiring title insurance companies to collect and report the information about the natural persons behind certain residential real estate transactions, over different values, and in its jurisdictions.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Banks limit delivery and distribution channels for some online products because this factor can, potentially, increase the AML/CTF and sanctions risks to an unacceptable level. Which of the following statements is an example of a case of remote deposit capture?
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One example of a case of remote deposit capture is a commercial company customer, it would typically include a hardware device that is used to read and transmit the check images making up the deposit. The security lies in the identification of the device and the transmission protocols.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
The “Wolfsberg Frequently Asked Questions on risk assessments for Money Laundering, Sanctions and Bribery & Corruption” has said that qualitative risk factors imply which of the following statements?
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It directly or indirectly affects inherent risk factors, one good example is a significant strategy and operational changes, such as the introduction of a major new product, or service, a merger or an acquisition, opening in a new location or closing an entity that may affect the inherent risk.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
In “Wolfsberg Frequently Asked Questions on risk assessments for Money Laundering, Sanctions and Bribery & Corruption” there are main qualitative risk factors, all the statements below are applicable, except?
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Some of the main qualitative risk factors are client base stability, integration of IT systems, expected account/client growth and expected revenue growth and last, recent AML compliance employee turnover.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
The Risk Assessment Programs consist of Inherent Risk Factors, one factor is called the Inherent risk ratings, which best describes this factor?
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Inherent risk ratings are the level of risk before any controls are applied to that customer, product, country or delivery channel.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Inherent Risk Factors include Inherent Risk Rating, under this is a high inherent risk, which of the following statements that do not apply as a high inherent risk?
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Some of the high inherent risks are crossing the border or international wire transfers, private banking services, and trade finance.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
The risk assessment program gave a specific calculation for residual risk, what is the equation when calculating the residual risk?
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The residual risk calculation is 100%(inherent risk) minus(-) 60% of control effectiveness equals residual risk.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Once a residual risk is calculated, it can be categorized as high, medium or low. When does a high residual risk happen?
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Incorrect
The high residual risk will happen when the controls are rated as ineffective whatever the inherent risk rating. It is high and the controls are effective.